Vista - Is binding a datacontext to a CLR object correct ?

There is something that confuses me about databinding. I'd like to know if
binding a datacontextproperty to a CLR object is a correct practice. Why ?



Because i'm creating usercontrol specifically designed to display my data.
Doing that, I reuse usercontrols inside each others.



Let's say i created a usercontrol called 'UC_a' to display 'Class_a' class
objects, which have 'Ca_Prop1' properties. Inside it, i have a bound
textbox. Its binding path is 'Ca_Prop1' assuming the 'UCa' datacontext is a
'Class_a' object.



Let's also say I reuse 'UCa' in 'UC1' and 'UC2' usercontrols which are
intended to display respectively 'Class_1' and 'Class_2' objects. 'Class_1'
have a 'C1_Prop_a' properties of type 'Class_a', 'Class_2' have a
'C2_Prop_a' properties of type 'Class_a' too.



I'd like to be able to get the datacontext of 'UC_a' set on the 'C1_Prop_a'
property when it's used in 'UC1' , and on the 'C2_Prop_a' property when it's
used in 'UC2' .



I see two solutions:

1) Setting it explicitly in the DataContextChanged event of UC1 and UC2. I
tried to do that but it doesn't work when I have more than one instance of
UC_a in then aggregating controls (UC1 or UC2 in my example). Binding works
just once for one instance only.

2) Binding the UC_a Datacontext itself to 'C1_Prop_a' in UC1 and 'C2_Prop_a'
in UC2 (I find it odd).



What's the best (or the one that works ) ?



Hope i'm clear enough.



Thanx in advance.



Patrice

Hi,

Pon wrote:
> There is something that confuses me about databinding. I'd like to know if
> binding a datacontextproperty to a CLR object is a correct practice. Why ?

See
http://www.beacosta.com/2006/03/why-...aprovider.html

HTH,
Laurent

>
>
>
> Because i'm creating usercontrol specifically designed to display my data.
> Doing that, I reuse usercontrols inside each others.
>
>
>
> Let's say i created a usercontrol called 'UC_a' to display 'Class_a' class
> objects, which have 'Ca_Prop1' properties. Inside it, i have a bound
> textbox. Its binding path is 'Ca_Prop1' assuming the 'UCa' datacontext is a
> 'Class_a' object.
>
>
>
> Let's also say I reuse 'UCa' in 'UC1' and 'UC2' usercontrols which are
> intended to display respectively 'Class_1' and 'Class_2' objects. 'Class_1'
> have a 'C1_Prop_a' properties of type 'Class_a', 'Class_2' have a
> 'C2_Prop_a' properties of type 'Class_a' too.
>
>
>
> I'd like to be able to get the datacontext of 'UC_a' set on the 'C1_Prop_a'
> property when it's used in 'UC1' , and on the 'C2_Prop_a' property when it's
> used in 'UC2' .
>
>
>
> I see two solutions:
>
> 1) Setting it explicitly in the DataContextChanged event of UC1 and UC2. I
> tried to do that but it doesn't work when I have more than one instance of
> UC_a in then aggregating controls (UC1 or UC2 in my example). Binding works
> just once for one instance only.
>
> 2) Binding the UC_a Datacontext itself to 'C1_Prop_a' in UC1 and 'C2_Prop_a'
> in UC2 (I find it odd).
>
>
>
> What's the best (or the one that works ) ?
>
>
>
> Hope i'm clear enough.
>
>
>
> Thanx in advance.
>
>
>
> Patrice
>
>


--
Laurent Bugnion [MVP ASP.NET]
Software engineering, Blog: http://www.galasoft-LB.ch
PhotoAlbum: http://www.galasoft-LB.ch/pictures
Support children in Calcutta: http://www.calcutta-espoir.ch

So binding datacontext between each others is perfectly correct despite of
what Blend say. It works perfectly in my code know.
Merci Laurent.

"Laurent Bugnion [MVP]" <galasoft-lb@bluewin.ch> wrote in message
news:%235yLZNXZHHA.3520@TK2MSFTNGP04.phx.gbl...
> Hi,
>
> Pon wrote:
>> There is something that confuses me about databinding. I'd like to know
>> if binding a datacontextproperty to a CLR object is a correct practice.
>> Why ?
>
> See
> http://www.beacosta.com/2006/03/why-...aprovider.html
>
> HTH,
> Laurent
>
>>
>>
>>
>> Because i'm creating usercontrol specifically designed to display my
>> data. Doing that, I reuse usercontrols inside each others.
>>
>>
>>
>> Let's say i created a usercontrol called 'UC_a' to display 'Class_a'
>> class objects, which have 'Ca_Prop1' properties. Inside it, i have a
>> bound textbox. Its binding path is 'Ca_Prop1' assuming the 'UCa'
>> datacontext is a 'Class_a' object.
>>
>>
>>
>> Let's also say I reuse 'UCa' in 'UC1' and 'UC2' usercontrols which are
>> intended to display respectively 'Class_1' and 'Class_2' objects.
>> 'Class_1' have a 'C1_Prop_a' properties of type 'Class_a', 'Class_2' have
>> a 'C2_Prop_a' properties of type 'Class_a' too.
>>
>>
>>
>> I'd like to be able to get the datacontext of 'UC_a' set on the
>> 'C1_Prop_a' property when it's used in 'UC1' , and on the 'C2_Prop_a'
>> property when it's used in 'UC2' .
>>
>>
>>
>> I see two solutions:
>>
>> 1) Setting it explicitly in the DataContextChanged event of UC1 and UC2.
>> I tried to do that but it doesn't work when I have more than one instance
>> of UC_a in then aggregating controls (UC1 or UC2 in my example). Binding
>> works just once for one instance only.
>>
>> 2) Binding the UC_a Datacontext itself to 'C1_Prop_a' in UC1 and
>> 'C2_Prop_a' in UC2 (I find it odd).
>>
>>
>>
>> What's the best (or the one that works ) ?
>>
>>
>>
>> Hope i'm clear enough.
>>
>>
>>
>> Thanx in advance.
>>
>>
>>
>> Patrice
>>
>>
>
>
> --
> Laurent Bugnion [MVP ASP.NET]
> Software engineering, Blog: http://www.galasoft-LB.ch
> PhotoAlbum: http://www.galasoft-LB.ch/pictures
> Support children in Calcutta: http://www.calcutta-espoir.ch